I don’t think I agree with this statement by Butler:
“Only if we accept the proposition that the state of Israel is the exclusive and legitimate representative of the Jewish people would a movement calling for divestment, sanctions and boycott against that state be understood as directed against the Jewish people as a whole.”
Even in that case, assuming the BDS movement targeted the racist policies and criminal actions of such a state, it still could not be considered antisemitic. Only if the state were being targeted merely because all its people were Jewish and there was no identifiable harmful behavior by the state could BDS be considered antisemitic in Butler’s example. Being a state “representing all the Jewish people” would not grant any special immunity from criticism or punishment for wrongdoing.